I have a question about the transmission of HSV2. My friend admits to having performed oral sex on someone who had HSV2 but says she did not had vaginal intercourse with him. She says that afterwards, she went to the bathroom to urinate and in wiping herself must have infected herself with the virus. She says her OBGYN agrees that this could happen. Is this possible? It seems highly unlikely to me but I want to give her the benefit of the doubt.