My boyfriend and I are sexually active, and we have never had sex with anyone other than each other. The first blood test I took two weeks ago said I have Chlamydia. Basically, all the hospital told me was that I have it and then they treated immediately. Two weeks later, and no sex with each other during these two weeks, my boyfriend was tested and treated. A week later, which is now today, the test results told us that he did not have Chlamydia. One may infer that the treatment was unnecessary.In the 1st year we dated, we had unprotected oral sex. During that year and after we had the oral sex, he donated blood and he received a letter that said he did not have any STDs. That was four years ago, therefore he never had Chlamydia four years ago either.Whenever we ask a health care provider how I could have gotten Chlamydia, they state that “you got it from your partner…one of you has had multiple partners.” They refuse to tell us alternative ways I may have gotten Chlamydia. We are tired of doctors telling us that someone is cheating on each other in our relationship or that one of us had partners in the past, which is impossible and completely false. We want to know how I may have gotten Chlamydia, given that we have only been with each other. Please answer our question. My boyfriend and I don’t know much about STDs or Chlamydia (probably because we never cared to listen since how could a virgin give another virgin a STD?) so anything you could tell us would be GREATLY APPRECIATED.If you have more questions to ask about our situation, please feel free to ask. Also, we will check this thread frequently because we take this seriously, so please don’t worry about us not replying or paying attention to your responses. Everything will be read. Thank you so much!Sincerely,Andrew and Katie
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Please Help Us
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The doctors have a point: An STI (STD) cannot manifest itself from thin air. The only other way someone can get an STI is through the vaginal canal they passed through during birth. I doubt it in this case because Chlamydia is bacterial and would have either caused serious havoc in the body by this point or it would have been killed while on antibiotics for other illnesses. Sorry, no other advice.
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Sometimes tests can give false positives. If there was only a single test, that is possible.
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Originally Posted By: SexpertThe doctors have a point: An STI (STD) cannot manifest itself from thin air. The only other way someone can get an STI is through the vaginal canal they passed through during birth. I doubt it in this case because Chlamydia is bacterial and would have either caused serious havoc in the body by this point or it would have been killed while on antibiotics for other illnesses. Sorry, no other advice. Is sex and through the birth canal really the only ways to get chlamydia? If so, I will ask my mother to get tested just in case I did get it from her. As for the other post..I really hope my test result was a false positive, however I'll never know because I've already been treated for it. It's also possible that my boyfriend has chlamydia and his test results were a false negative right? What are the chances that our test results were false? Thank you to both of you for your help, sexpert and sdp--Andrew and Kat
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While it's not all that common for chlamydia, if the lab that did the testing used an older test (don't know the name), then a false positive is not unheard of and more than likely may be your explanation, especially if there were no follow up tests.However, if it was a nucleic acid probe test the results are more than likely accurate. (I think that is the name but I'm going off memory of shit I read long ago and am not sure. Aptima is the name of the test) Long and short of it, go back to your doc, find out what test was used and then research the false-positive rate of the test. You should be able to get that information from the maker of the test.Also, if your boyfriend has only been tested once and it was with the old test he should be tested again. In males the old test is more likely to produce false-negative than a false positive. (Again, this is out of memory and subject to the vagaries and fallibilities there of.)_________________________________________________________________Added-Here's a link to a site saying to some degree what I was saying. Though they are far more accurate and educated. Their discussion is more about gonorrhea but it also includes chlamydia.
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Originally Posted By: OldFolksWhile it's not all that common for chlamydia, if the lab that did the testing used an older test (don't know the name), then a false positive is not unheard of and more than likely may be your explanation, especially if there were no follow up tests.However, if it was a nucleic acid probe test the results are more than likely accurate. (I think that is the name but I'm going off memory of shit I read long ago and am not sure. Aptima is the name of the test) Long and short of it, go back to your doc, find out what test was used and then research the false-positive rate of the test. You should be able to get that information from the maker of the test.Also, if your boyfriend has only been tested once and it was with the old test he should be tested again. In males the old test is more likely to produce false-negative than a false positive. (Again, this is out of memory and subject to the vagaries and fallibilities there of.)_________________________________________________________________Added-Here's a link to a site saying to some degree what I was saying. Though they are far more accurate and educated. Their discussion is more about gonorrhea but it also includes chlamydia. Thank you very much, Oldfolks. My boyfriend and I will try to find out what kind of tests we took, and then the accuracy of those tests. Also, thank you for the link, it was helpful because the couples have a similar problem as my boyfriend and I do. My boyfriend will probably not get tested again since he was already treated for Chylamydia anyway, even though the test results stated that he did not have it.--Kat and Andrew