Ok, does the strain of Herpes that causes cold sores also cause Genital Herpes? And if so, does this mean that if someone has cold sores, that they also automatically have Genital Herpes? And finally, if both of the previous were true, is it possible to still get Herpes or Genital Herpes if there are no visible sores?If it helps at all, I'm asking because my girlfriend has Herpes (cold sores only, to my knowledge, but I want to make sure), and I want to eat her out, but I'm not sure if she would also have genital herpes. But if she does, I was wondering if it would be contagious if there were no visible sores. Thanks! If you need clarification on anything, just let me know.
Cold Sores/Herpes questions...
they are two different strains.
HSV1 = oral herpes ("cold sores")
HSV2 = genital herpes
you can get HSV1 on your genitals, so your real interest should be that she could give you HSV1 on your genitals when she gives you head. (but so can 90% of the population, who would test positive for HSV1 even if they don't get visible lesions.) then if you got it on your genitals, you could pass it to HER genitals during sex.
the virus can be passed even if no lesions are present, it's called subclinical viral shedding. harder to pass, but not impossible.
for really in depth information, check out the website below - they also have an outstanding forum to answer questions.